C-17 Pilot Initial Qualification (PIQ) End Of Course Practice Test

These questions are part of the practice quiz. Start practicing

• If the engine start button fails to stay in during an engine start, what is your first action?
• What is the significance of the separation valve during refueling operations?
• What is the purpose of the XFER button on the CNC?
• What is the purpose of the two radar altimeters in the cockpit?
• For a built-in-test (BIT) of the CMDS to occur, which switch position must the mode switch NOT be in?
• During the Smoke, Fire, or Fumes checklist procedures, at what cabin altitude must the loadmaster use the emergency regulator to start oxygen flowing?
• Which hydraulic system controls the normal extension and retraction of the gear?
• When might a "MANIFOLD FAIL" aural CAWS announce on the ground?
• If a malfunction occurs during fuel dump, what action must be taken to prevent emptying a tank?
• Is the following statement true or false? "The gear handle's red warning lights illuminate when the gear is in transit."
• Which light indicates a potential fire warning condition in the engine fire detection system?
• If symbols appear in the upper left of the ND MAP format, what has been selected for display?
• What does it signify if the fire handle light is illuminated after a fire has been put out?
• If the fire handle has been pulled and the fire is extinguished, what happens to the fire handle light?
• What does the appearance of "EXCESS" in the upper right corner of the ND MAP format indicate?
• To activate all microphones for the cargo compartment, which option must be selected on the COMM EMITTER CONTROL page?
• What does the OBIGGS replace oxygen with in the fuel tanks?
• When lowering both main landing gear on one side, which gear is lowered first?
• What is the correct response to a malfunction alert in flight?
• Is CCU 1 and CCU 2 configuration crucial for the IRMS reliability?
• What does the AUTO SHT DN ORIDE switchlight override?
• Stab trim handles allow direct mechanical backup control of what component if electronic control fails?
• During cargo jettison procedures, logistic locks may not release when the deck angle exceeds __________ degrees.
• What could result if an ENGINE SHUT OFF is placed to on prior to 18% N2?
• What conclusion can be drawn if the MASTER CAUTION light comes on with additional warning lights while using hydraulic system 1 without engines running?
• What action should be taken when a positive rate of climb is established during a go-around?
• What does it indicate when the MASTER CAUTION, LOOP cue, and No. 2 ENG LOOP A lights are illuminated?
• Are PWS and Turbulence depiction provided for clear air events?
• DRT is an acceptable power setting for takeoff when which condition is met?
• Which condition requires immediate descent to prevent further cabin pressure loss?
• What action could result in a starter failure if the starter valve did NOT close after engine start?
• When the VHF/UHF backup control panel is powered on, can the selected communication radio be tuned at the CNC?
• With the autopilot or flight director engaged, what happens if you move the vertical speed wheel more than 200 fpm?
• Which system will activate if the avionics area temperature is too low?
• What should be done if severe windshear conditions exist just prior to takeoff?
• What happens when pressing the COMM key on the MCD?
• What does the "*" symbol next to a line on the MCD screen signify?
• The __________ detent on the flap/slat handle is used for takeoff.
• In the event of an engine failure during landing, which engines should have their throttle set to reverse idle?
• If L or R ANTISKID is displayed on the WAP, what is the final crew response?
• When performing the Electrical Fire and Smoke checklist, which action should be taken?
• Pressing the split axis pushbutton after the AP is engaged allows the pilot to manually control which axis?
• What is the primary consequence of landing with excessive touchdown speed?
• What component is specifically designed to enhance safety in flammable environments related to fuel?
• How many initiators can fire all four hatches of the flotation equipment deployment system?
• What method uses air pressure from another aircraft to drive the pneumatic starter?
• Which component of the flotational equipment deployment system is intended for emergency exits?
• Which procedure is critical to follow when preparing for cargo jettison if weight distribution is a concern?
• What is the primary reason to check runway length before takeoff?
• Which statement about the IRU batteries is correct?
• When the gear is in transit, what color are each gear indicator and the gear handle?
• Which switch allows the pilot to select a navigation mode?
• Threat priorities in the compass rose are displayed in which order?
• How many engine driven hydraulic pumps are there per system?
• What is the purpose of the oxygen crossfeed switch?
• Before caution messages can be manually scrolled, what must first be done?
• Where is the RA/BA pushbutton used to select the radar altimeter scale located?
• If an engine fails during takeoff and no lateral guidance was armed, what will the roll bar command?
• If the hydraulic system pressure increases above 4200 psi, what is the recommended action?
• At what distance should you position the hand-held fire extinguisher from the fire?
• If during engine start, the starter valve light doesn't illuminate, what should be fixed before proceeding with the start?
• What do CAT II message annunciations displayed in the scratchpad indicate?
• When is it necessary to test Loop B in the fire detection system?
• What value represents refusal speed (VR) for an aircraft?
• If the visual inspection shows damage to the gear after an unsafe indication, what is your next step?
• When using the alternate brake system, by what percentage should you increase mission computer generated landing or ground roll distance?
• Should crewmembers silence any aural warning as soon as the cause of the warning is recognized?
• What should you do if visual inspection confirms the gear to be down and locked after receiving an unsafe indication?
• On the COMM INDEX page, what does LSK 6L, QUICK ON/OFF do?
• Which of the following describes the status of the radio during VHF/UHF Backup Control operations?
• What is the primary ditching exit for crewmembers in the relief crew area and cockpit?
• What should crewmembers avoid contacting when bailing out?
• Where are portable fire extinguishers located on the aircraft?
• Touch and go landings are conducted with which of the following?
• How do the pilots use the radar altimeter RA No. 1 during normal operation?
• What happens if the flotation equipment deployment system is activated before the aircraft is at rest?
• How must the decision height be monitored in a CAT II ILS operation?
• Where is the flap index switch located?
• What does the course line selected with the CRS 1 for the MAP display represent?
• What must be done to use the stored heading alignment mode in the inertial reference system?
• Which of the following is NOT an externally supported component of the radio navigation system?
• The engine-driven hydraulic pumps provide continuous hydraulic pressure of how many psi?
• What does a flashing "VV-400" symbol in the pitch or thrust FMA indicate?
• The BATH alignment is available only beyond which latitudes?
• How many fire extinguishers are located on the aircraft?
• Which of the following is a necessary precaution when opening doors/hatches in flight?
• In the pitch attitude command/attitude hold mode, what occurs when moving the stick?
• Rotating the __________ to zero engages altitude hold mode.
• What does the inboard tank fuel scheduling system do?
• How does one ensure safety while following the Electrical Fire and Smoke checklist?
• What signal should be given to the crew when windshear is detected?
• Which hydraulic systems power the flaps?
• Which fuel management process might lead to operational alerts when conditions are not favorable?
• What happens if only one of the loops in the engine fire detection system is operational?
• Where are the crash axes located?
• Which message on the warning and caution annunciation panel indicates a hazardous condition requiring immediate corrective action?
• How many liters are in the primary and auxiliary converters of the passenger oxygen system?
• What is the correct action regarding microphones in the cargo compartment?
• When flying through contaminated airspace, what will the air used for avionics cooling be?
• If the mission bus control is lost, what happens to navigation emitter control?
• Prior to cargo jettison, what should the crew ensure?
• What action should you take when the left MANIFOLD FAIL light comes on at FL 370?
• If an engine fire alarm activates and the handle is pulled, what must be done next?
• How can the fuel quantity system be monitored effectively?
• Why are two separate transmissions required to alert/brief aircrew and passengers during an emergency?
• Should the Smoke or Fumes checklist be completed to augment the Smoke, Fire, or Fumes checklist if further elimination of smoke and fumes is required?
• The angle of attack limiter system is operational only when which control system is active?
• What does the WAP message "ENV PANEL INOP" indicate?
• The control stick provides input to the flight control computers using which type of sensors?
• What is the role of the maintenance/ditching hatch during an emergency ditching?
• What can occur due to excessive brake application during taxi following landing?
• How many main gear wheels does the C-17 have?
• In Mode 4A, the aural alert "TOO LOW, GEAR" sounds when the gear is retracted and below what altitude?
• What does the ESC's isolation of the left manifold indicate?
• Which control displays airfields on the ND MAP or CHART?
• Where are the flotation equipment deployment system (FEDS) ditching ladders stored?
• Landing at a higher altitude under the same wind conditions requires what kind of landing distance?
• What other visual indications are present when smoke is detected?
• What should be done if smoke or fumes are detected during flight?
• Where can the aircraft commander find information on Low EGT Margin engines?
• If one or more pressure relief valves are open and the differential pressure is below 7.8 psid or decreasing, what should you do?
• What must be done for emergency operation after an automatic shutdown of the APU?
• Pressing the MACH/IAS momentary action pushbutton toggles the selected value shown in the speed window between THR and PCH.
• What condition would cause the OBIGGS to shut down automatically?
• Which mode provides pitch guidance for initial climbout after main gear lift off?
• What happens if both channels of the fuel quantity system fail?
• If flap asymmetry is caused by a mechanical jam or loss of hydraulics, what will happen to the flaps?
• If the cabin is depressurizing slowly due to a small leak, what does HI FLOW do?
• During engine start, which part of the hydraulic system is normally on?
• The automatic dispensing of expendable inventory occurs when what is displayed on the CMDS control display unit?
• What is go speed (VGO) when refusal speed (VR) is 130 kts, rotation speed (VROT) is 125 kts, and maximum brake energy speed (VBMAX) is 135 kts?
• What may cause engine flameout above 20,000 feet due to loss of fuel pressure?
• Is CCU 2 a backup controller that ensures failure of CCU 1 has no significant effect on the IRMS?
• Which pitch EFCS mode is considered primary during most phases of flight?
• What is the primary function that the AN/APS-150 weather radar system does not provide?
• Which action(s) should be performed during a no flap/no slat landing?
• When performing a touch and go, when is it appropriate to advance the throttles for takeoff?
• What is the primary source of oxygen for the crew system?
• With NORM selected on the ROLL RATE switch on the AFCS control panel, the roll rate limit is _____ degrees per second.
• What action should you take upon receiving a momentary unsafe indication of the gear while on the ground?
• An ABEAM waypoint results from which type of entry?
• Can the ESC maintain pressurization and compartment temperature control with only one air conditioning pack operating?
• What should the crew check if they notice unusual brake performance?
• What is the correct method to select reverse thrust on the C-17?
• When is a DISCONTINUITY added to the flight plan?
• How are soft waypoints such as speed limits entered?
• Pressing the SEC PLN pushbutton on the MFC displays the secondary flight plan in which format?
• In which mode is MAP1AUTO displayed?
• What must be ensured before using the oxygen mask to prevent rapid depletion of the oxygen supply?
• What type of speed is refusal distance associated with during a rejected takeoff?
• Pressing the _________ pushbutton directs the ATS to move the throttles to the selected EPR limit.
• What does a flashing 'EOCS' annunciation on the HUD indicate?
• During what conditions can the RAT pressure help control the aircraft?
• What is the recommended first action upon recognizing windshear?
• What is the purpose of the vertical stabilizer access door in relation to flotation equipment?
• What indication shows that too many symbols are selected for display on the ND MAP?
• In the event of an engine failure at 125 knots, which airspeed will the pitch bar command based on the conditions given?
• What precaution should be taken regarding flotation equipment deployment system hatches before the aircraft comes to rest?
• The bank angle selector governs the roll rate.
• Which action can help prevent asymmetrical conditions during landing procedures?
• What must be ensured to prevent tire failure upon landing?
• What is the maximum allowable nosewheel angle when gross weight exceeds 490,000 pounds and taxi speed exceeds 20 knots?
• Which control displays altitudes associated with waypoints and airports?
• What should be done if the vent box overfill light comes on during refueling?
• Which of the following would require an increase to the computed landing distance?
• Which two formats can the MFD display radar video?
• After retarding the throttles for an en route descent, what speed should you maintain until reaching 310 KCAS?
• If the HYD cue light and a LOW indication appear for Sys 1 Aux pump switchlight, what does this indicate?
• The missile warning system (MWS) provides warning signals to the pilot through which component?
• What occurs when the landing gear TEST button is depressed?
• If the WAP displays BLEED TEMP 1, what does it mean?
• Is a parachute or restraint harness optional for crewmembers opening doors/hatches in flight?
• If heading hold is selected while the aircraft is in a bank, what will the AP or F/D do?
• When ALT BRAKE IN USE is displayed on the WAP, which hydraulic system is powering the brakes?
• How does the autopilot respond if the speed command wheel is rotated?
• What might indicate a catastrophic engine failure during flight?
• Hydraulic systems 2 and what other system power the slats?
• What does an arrow symbol pointing towards data on a line on the MCD screen indicate?
• When the chemical CBrCIF2 decomposes, how can it be identified?
• What should be avoided to ensure the safety of life rafts during a ditching?
• When engaging alternate brakes, which other system might need to be monitored?
• What can happen if direct lift control is held for long periods near the ground?
• What is the first action a pilot should take during a rejected takeoff?
• If both WCCs fail or if the WAP fails, which light illuminates?
• For normal configurations, is approach speed the speed used on final approach with landing flaps and slats?
• Which equipment is required for CAT II ILS operations?
• What does the EMERGENCY lever position in the oxygen regulator indicate during normal operations?
• Where are the engine-driven hydraulic pumps located?
• Which system is responsible for operating the main landing gear on the C-17?
• The RAT develops enough hydraulic pressure primarily for what purpose?
• What may result from landing with touchdown speed greater than tire limit speed?
• What threshold crossing height is used when computing landing distance?
• What is the first step in building a flight plan on the mission computer?
• Which valve should be set to the CLOSE position when refueling using both fuel receptacles?
• What is suggested during an en route descent to manage speed effectively?
• What is a key characteristic of the flotation equipment deployment system's design?
• During an engine start, if fuel flow is at 450 PPH with no increase in EGT after twenty seconds, what should you do?
• Selecting a key on the left side of the MCD next to a hard waypoint will display which page?
• The LNAV pushbutton arms/dearms or engages the AFCS into the lateral control mode selected on the NAV switch corresponding to the PILOT ID switch.
• When should the separation valve be opened during flight?
• At what rate does the fuel dump system dump fuel approximately?
• What can cause the transfer pump automatic shut off?
• Is the statement true or false? Large or abrupt rudder inputs in mechanical mode landing may overstress the vertical stabilizer.
• Does the reactive windshear model in the mission computer provide Flight Director (FD) guidance for an escape maneuver during windshear encounters?
• What happens if the CCU transfer does not occur automatically due to a failure?
• For structural damage associated with a wing, why should fuel dump be avoided?
• What should the flap setting be on final approach for a no slat landing with flaps?
• How many consecutive engine start attempts are allowable without a cooling period between attempts?
• Which checklist should always be accomplished if smoke is filling the pressurized portion of the aircraft?
• If all four overpressure shutoff valves close while airborne, what systems will be lost?
• Which mode directs a missed approach?
• What is the primary method for pitch control under normal conditions?
• What becomes inoperative with a failure of one of the remaining flight control computers or IRUs after all generators have failed?
• If making a landing with nose gear retracted, when should the brakes be applied?
• What component receives command signals for the flight control surfaces from the control stick and rudder pedal force sensors?
• Once airborne, MWS ON allows automatic dispensing of expendables if the MODE switch is in which position?
• What is the buffer mode used to provide video for?
• If a waypoint is not recognized by the database, how will it be displayed?
• What action is taken immediately after establishing a positive rate during a go-around?
• What action is required when the cabin altitude is above 12,500 feet?
• When should flaps be extended to the final setting during a circling approach?
• What is the normal pressure range for the passenger oxygen system?
• If a takeoff is discontinued after reaching GO speed, what is the likely outcome?
• Should the steering bypass valve be returned to normal after towing?
• Which line select key clears the Black-balled function for OSH VOR?
• Pressing the ___________ pushbutton engages altitude hold mode, maintaining the current altitude.
• If the localizer mode is armed, what is the necessary course accuracy for satisfactory mode capture?
• When the anti-ice system is activated, what happens to the bleed air temperature?
• What does the APU warning horn indicate when in the cargo compartment?
• To make a revision of altitude or speed associated with a waypoint, which key would you use?
• What does it indicate when the oxygen quantity falls below a certain threshold according to the CREW OXY LOW warning?
• Selecting a zero V/S while in vertical speed mode engages ____ mode.
• Rudder trim is accomplished by which method?
• What is necessary for the flotation equipment deployment system initiators to operate?
• When does the landing gear warning aural alert activate?
• In the PART position, what is adjusted for the ROLL switches on the FCS actuator panel?
• How many emergency escape breathing devices (EEBDs) are available on the C-17?
• Where are the ENGINE START switches located?
• After the fire handle is pulled for an engine fire, when does the ENG light on the fuel panel extinguish?
• If the fuel management system indicates a failure, what alert will be displayed?
• At what altitude does survivability decrease when performing bailout procedures?
• A turn point soft waypoint is added when a waypoint is entered from which key?
• When the Communication Switch Panel Backup Audio switch is in the ON position, what is affected?
• If the engine does not accelerate to idle RPM and fails to respond to throttle input during start, what is your first action?
• What will happen if the fuel dump continues without intervention?
• The speed at which the main gear touches the ground is known as what?
• If a NAVAID is also a waypoint on the flight plan, how can it be displayed on the ND map?
• What might the APU OIL indication on the WAP signify?
• Is the GPWS test function available when weight is on wheels?
• Full rudder pedal movement allows a maximum of what degrees of nose wheel steering?
• The ailerons and spoilers primarily provide which type of control?
• Where is the control panel used for backup communications located?
• In the event of a manifold failure, what indication will be present?
• If the MASTER CAUTION light and a single amber LOOP light illuminate, what might this indicate?
• What are the two panels at the forward loadmaster station that provide warning and caution information?
• What is the primary reason for silencing aural warnings during flight?
• What happens if the left manifold fails but the manifold is self-sealing?
• Is landing permitted with tailwinds greater than 10 knots or headwinds greater than 40 knots?
• What action should be taken when smoke is detected in the cargo area?
• Which control overlays flight plan symbology on the FSR format?
• During windshear conditions on takeoff or landing below 200 ft AGL, what should not be exceeded?
• Does the exhaust from an APU pose a personnel hazard during start and operation?
• To continue refueling after the HI-LEVEL TEST, which switch should be set to the NORMAL position?
• Under normal conditions, how are elevators controlled?
• What does the CREW OXY LOW warning indicate?
• What type of air does the OBIGGS use to replace oxygen in fuel tanks?
• Which EFCS mode uses a snapshot of the last valid air data information?
• What procedure should be used for a 3-engine go-around?
• Dust particles from damaged optical sensor converters (OSCs) may contain what type of materials?
• What should you not do with an engine that displays an "ENG STABILITY X" message on the WAP?
• When is maximum power required for takeoff rather than DRT?
• In the engine fire detection system, how many loops must be exposed to fire to trigger an alarm?
• If all four engines fail, which hydraulic system is powered by the RAT-driven hydraulic pump?
• The thrust armed and engaged modes appear in the ______ corner.
• When conducting a touch and go landing, when should throttles be advanced for takeoff?
• What action is performed to test the MFD?
• If landing gear indicators show unsafe, what should you do?
• What switchlight must be pressed to complete the transfer from tank 1 to tank 2?
• Which letter best represents the location of the trim control panel?
• During the cruise checklist, if you see the MASTER WARNING light with "MANIFOLD FAIL," what is the first action you should take?
• Which switch is used by the crew to manually control flight deck temperature?
• During VHF/UHF Backup Control operations, what is inhibited?
• What is the first action for a PITCH AUTHORITY warning?
• If fuel quantity falls below 16,000 pounds, where is one of the caution annunciators located?
• What must be done to manually override the locking mechanism?
• What is the primary purpose of the transfer pump?
• The missile warning system (MWS) contains how many optical sensor converters?
• Which control on the AFCSCP engages the ATS into speed select mode?
• How is the FIXED GAINS mode entered?
• Which light indicates a malfunction when the automatic fuel management system is off schedule?
• Which switch is used to check the operation of all the smoke detectors?
• What does the TOTAL FUEL LBS indicator show if a single tank indicator is inoperative?
• Why must you consider a potential engine loss during takeoff?
• For a CAT II ILS approach in the C-17, how is the decision height (DH) determined?
• When set to MAX, how does the variable gain compare to the sensitivity available in AUTO?
• How are frequencies and channels on the STBY side of the CNC activated?
• For aircraft with extended range tanks, what is the total fuel load when using JP-8?
• What can happen if multiple initiators are armed but one is sufficient to fire the hatches?
• What should be done if vertical speed mode is engaged without altitude armed?
• What happens beyond a 37° bank in the pitch rate command roll submode?
• To deactivate the AGN VOR for use in the Mission Computer Navigation solution, which line select key should be pressed?
• What happens when you push the ALT HOLD pushbutton while the pitch FMA is engaged in 'VV+1200'?
• What indicates that altitude hold mode is engaged in the cockpit?
• If a gear malfunction occurs while lowering the gear, what action should you take?
• During a rejected takeoff, which of the following is advised?
• What must be avoided during windshear on takeoff or landing below 200 ft AGL?
• Does the XFER switch on the CNC toggle between the active and standby frequency?
• What is the maximum groundspeed that a tire can withstand during takeoff or landing?
• What does the press-to-reset function of the MASTER WARNING light do?
• Which control shows the selected route of flight for the secondary flight plan?
• What is the relationship between rotation speed (VROT) and maximum brake energy speed (VBMAX) that ensures a safe takeoff?
• Can an aircraft commander with 50 hours in command fly an actual CAT II ILS?
• Where is the cue display located on the WAP?
• Which alert provides initial notification of smoke detected?
• When the MODE select switch is set in MAP1, which function is inhibited?
• In the event of a loss of engine No. 2 or 3, which pump assists in landing gear retraction?
• What could result in further or more serious damage on an engine that was shut down for a fire or mechanical failure?
• An APU fire is indicated on which panels?
• Can you tune a selected communication radio at the CNC while the backup control panel is powered off?
• What is indicated when the localizer mode is armed on an approach?
• During an overheat situation, what is the priority action to protect the avionics systems?
• Which of the following actions will not disengage the autopilot?
• During landing with one engine inoperative, which engine throttles are placed in reverse idle?
• Which mode would you switch to if rapid altitude changes were required?
• In which mode is Mode 4C inoperative when gear is down, flaps at ½ detent or less, and below 500 feet?
• Why is it important for the flotation equipment deployment system to be properly maintained?
• Which letter represents the switch used to engage/disengage the pitch attitude command mode?
• What personal protective equipment should you wear when near an operating APU?
• If the wiring to the cockpit emergency locator switch is damaged, what will happen to the emergency locator transmitter?
• Where is the oxygen control panel for the passenger/auxiliary oxygen system located?
• What light indicates an above normal EGT reading in addition to the MASTER CAUTION and APU cue lights?
• To establish a touchdown descent rate of approximately 360 fpm, what should the FPV be positioned at during an approach to assault landing?
• Manual pressurization procedures are necessary when which of the following occurs?
• What does a displayed rate of cabin altitude change of -500 indicate?
• You have an avionics overheat situation while on the ground. What should you do if the cooldown requires extensive time?
• When flying in mechanical mode, adjusting the conventional aileron displacement trim will cause the aircraft to:
• What is a potential hazard when the fuel dump operation is not manually terminated?
• What does a CHECK WING A/I message on the MCD indicate?
• What switch must be turned on to energize the missile warning system?
• What does the term "engine failure recognition speed" refer to in takeoff considerations?
• How many flotation equipment deployment system initiators are electrically armed?
• How can you verify that the anti-ice system is functioning correctly?
• Access to the HOLD page can be achieved from which LAT page?
• How long can excessive brake application impact brake components?
• During a CAT II ILS approach, what action should be taken if the runway is not in sight and there is lateral deviation?
• What indicates that reverse thrust should be applied with caution?
• What should be done if the thrust reversers are inoperative during takeoff calculations?
• Which area is identified as a caution annunciation zone?
• The IFCMs have three modes of operation; electronic control, mechanical control, and what additional mode?
• How many smoke detectors are there on the C-17?
• On the ground, what warning will pilots receive if the avionics area temperature is too high?
• When can a safe takeoff be made according to the runway available and critical field length?
• What should be confirmed during a visual inspection if the MFD CFG display indicates unsafe?
• During normal operation, how should the oxygen regulator levers be positioned?
• If only one or two safety switch pins have been removed and the DEF SYS DISPENSE ARM switchlight is pressed, what will happen?
• Does the mission computer permanent degraded mode affect normal cockpit flight operations?
• If a GEN OIL caution message appears on the WAP, what is the corrective action?
• Which vertical flight path mode reduces airframe structural loading during rough weather?
• When positive pressure is required, what factor is crucial for the oxygen mask?
• What is the standard signal for ditching?
• What should be done if the bleed air temperature is too high?
• Which switch is selected on the ICS panel if a crewmember detects a failure?
• For rudder trim, the ALTN position of the TRIM SEL switch does what?
• What does the GRD button on the CNC do when pressed?
• What key should be pressed to display the COMM/NAV Summary page?